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Problem 154 Solution

Let pi be the probability of ruin given a bankroll of $i.

p1 = .4 + .6*p2
p2 = .4*p1 + .6*p3
p3 = .4*p2 + .6*p4
p4 = .4*p3 + .6*p5
p5 = .4*p4 + .6*p6
.
.
.

Now sum the equations.

Sum for i=1 to infinity of pi = .4 + .4*(sum for i=1 to infinity of pi) + .6*(sum for i=2 to infinity of pi)

Sum for i=1 to infinity of pi = .4 + (sum for i=1 to infinity of pi) -.6*p1)

.6*p1=.4

p1=.4/.6 = 2/3

At this point you can use substitution to find that pi=(2/3)i.

So p10=(2/3)10=~0.017342


This problem is from the March 2000 issue of The Actuary, published by the Society of Actuaries.

Michael Shackleford, ASA - April 5, 2000

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